Daily Current Affairs Quiz – 17th April 2024

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Dear Readers, Daily Current Affairs Questions Quiz for SBI, IBPS, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2024 of 17th April 2024. Daily GK quiz online for bank & competitive exam. Here we have given the Daily Current Affairs Quiz based on the previous days Daily Current Affairs updates. Candidates preparing for IBPS, SBI, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2024 & other competitive exams can make use of these Current Affairs Quiz.

 

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1) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has requested that lenders send a ‘key fact statement’ (KFS) to borrowers of all new retail and Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) term loans sanctioned on or after _________ including new loans to existing clients.

(a) June 1,2024

(b) May 31,2024

(c) August 1,2024

(d) October 1,2024

(e) December 1,2024


2)
The Reserve Bank of India limits Sarvodaya Bank customers’ withdrawals to how much rupee?

(a) Rs.10000

(b) Rs.12000

(c) Rs.15000

(d) Rs.16000

(e) Rs.18000


3)
Which bank released a commemorative history book titled “Anarkali Bazaar, Lahore to Dwarka, Delhi – A 130 Years Saga of Excellence,” that details the bank’s history from 1894 to the present?

(a) Indian bank

(b) Canara bank

(c) Punjab National Bank

(d) Federal bank

(e) Bank of Maharashtra


4)
According to the industry association Nasscom, India remains the top choice for businesses looking to expand their digital services portfolio.According to the report, what percentage of Indian firms spent more than 20% of their IT budget on digital in 2023?

(a) 70%

(b) 71%

(c) 72%

(d) 75%

(e) 73%


5)
Which state-based Ramkrishna Forgings secured a ₹270 crore deal for Vande Bharat trains?

(a) Himachal Pradesh

(b) Andhra Pradesh

(c) West Bengal

(d) Telangana

(e) Madhya Pradesh


6)
India Signed a Protocol Amending Tax Treaty with Mauritius to Close Loopholes Used for Tax Evasion and Avoidance. India has signed the DTAA with how many countries in total to protect non-resident Indians from double taxation?

(a) 82

(b) 83

(c) 85

(d) 87

(e) 89


7)
India’s exports are expected to reach how much(in billion dollars) in fiscal year 2023-24?

(a) $776.68 billion

(b)  $774.68 billion

(c)  $778.68 billion

(d)  $772.68 billion

(e)  $770.68 billion


8) W
ho has resigned as Chief Executive Officer of Byju’s India and Raveendran Takes Over Daily Operations?

(a) Arun Kumar

(b) Varun Nair

(c) Santhosh Varma

(d) Arjun Mohan

(e) Parveen Shah


9) In
which state did the Indian Army and Defence Research & Development Organization successfully test the indigenous man-portable anti-tank guided missile weapon system and what is the missile’s maximum range (in Km)?

(a) Odisha, 3km

(b) Rajasthan, 4km

(c) Andhra Pradesh, 5km

(d) Gujarat, 2km

(e) Maharashtra, 6km


10)
Hindustan Shipyard Ltd (HSL) has begun construction on India’s first indigenous fleet support ship for the Indian Navy. In August 2023, the contract with the Ministry of Defence was inked for an expected cost of how many crores?

(a) Rs.18000crore

(b) Rs.16000crore

(c) Rs.14000crore

(d) Rs.19000crore

(e) Rs.17000crore


11)
Russia successfully launches the Angara-A5 space rocket from Vostochny Cosmodrome in its maiden test. What is the height of the Angara-A5 rocket?

(a) 52.5m

(b) 54.5m

(c) 56.5m

(d) 58.5m

(e) 55.5m


12)
An MoU between BEL and IIT-Mandi intends for cooperation in Research and Technology/Product Development — in the areas of Semiconductors, Quantum Technologies and Drones. Where is IIT Mandi located?

(a) Himachal Pradesh

(b) Andhra Pradesh

(c) West Bengal

(d) Telangana

(e) Madhya Pradesh


13)
Which corporation signs a memorandum of understanding with Detect Technologies to monitor building sites using artificial intelligence?

(a) Lasern & Turbo

(b) Engineers India Limited

(c) Hindustan Construction Limited

(d) Reliance Infrastructure Limited

(e) Tata Project Limited


14)
With 72.2 million passengers, Delhi Airport ranks among the world’s top ten busiest airports. How many airports in the top ten for total passenger traffic are in the United States?

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) 6

(e) 2


15)
Mohun Bagan pip Mumbai City to win their first ISL League Shield.How many teams have participated in the league?

(a) 10

(b) 4

(c) 6

(d) 8

(e) 7


16)
Mykolas Alekna shattered the nearly 38-year-old previous best mark in men’s athletics with a massive discus throw of _____ meters, breaking the world record that had stood for the longest.

(a) 74.32m

(b) 74.33m

(c) 74.35m

(d) 74.38m

(e) 74.39m


17)
D. Gukesh of India remains the top FIDE candidate for 2024 in the Great Hall in which country?

(a) Germany

(b) Canada

(c) France

(d) Hong Kong

(e) Italy


18)
Derek Underwood, a legendary England spin bowler, passed away. In which year was he confessed into the International Cricket Hall of Fame, acknowledging his enormous contributions to the sport?

(a) 2008

(b) 2009

(c) 2005

(d) 2004

(e) 2007


19)
In which year did the World Federation of Haemophilia establish World Haemophilia Day?

(a) 1987

(b) 1989

(c) 1988

(d) 1986

(e) 1985


20)
Which bank deployed the tagline “You Can Bank Upon”?

(a) Indian bank

(b) Canara bank

(c) Punjab National Bank

(d) Federal bank

(e) Bank of Maharashtra


Answers :

1) Answer: D

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has asked lenders to provide ‘key fact statement’ (KFS) to the borrowers of all new retail and Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) term loans sanctioned on or after October 1, 2024, including fresh loans to existing customers.
  • KFS contains key information regarding a loan agreement, including an all-in cost of the loan, in a simple and easy to understand format.
  • Applicable Entities: The circular issued by the RBI is addressed to regulated entities, including all commercial banks, cooperative banks, and non-banking financial companies (including housing finance companies).
  • Prospective Borrowers: The KFS is to be provided to all prospective borrowers to help them make informed decisions before signing the loan contract, following a standardised format.
  • Exemptions: The directive exempts credit card receivables from the provisions outlined in the circular.

Detailed Explanation:

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has asked lenders to provide ‘key fact statement’ (KFS) to the borrowers of all new retail and Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) term loans sanctioned on or after October 1, 2024, including fresh loans to existing customers.
  • KFS contains key information regarding a loan agreement, including an all-in cost of the loan, in a simple and easy to understand format.
  • Applicable Entities: The circular issued by the RBI is addressed to regulated entities, including all commercial banks, cooperative banks, and non-banking financial companies (including housing finance companies).
  • Prospective Borrowers: The KFS is to be provided to all prospective borrowers to help them make informed decisions before signing the loan contract, following a standardised format.
  • Exemptions: The directive exempts credit card receivables from the provisions outlined in the circular.
  • Inclusion in Loan Agreement : The KFS, which will be included as a summary box to be exhibited as part of the loan agreement, has to be written in a language understood by such borrowers.
  • Understanding Acknowledgement : Contents of KFS need to be explained to the borrower and an acknowledgement has to be obtained stating that he/she has understood the same.
  • The KFS has to be provided with a unique proposal number and will have a validity period of at least 3 working days for loans having tenor of 7 days or more and a validity period of one working day for loans having tenor of less than 7 days, as per the circular.
  • Validity period refers to the period available to the borrower, after being provided the KFS by the regulated entity (RE), to agree to the terms of the loan.
  • They will be bound by the terms of the loan indicated in the KFS, if agreed to by the borrower during the validity period.
  • The KFS will include a computation sheet of the annual percentage rate (APR) and the amortisation schedule of the loan over the loan tenor.


2) Answer: C

  • In a significant move, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has placed several constraints on the Mumbai-based Sarvodaya Co-operative Bank.
  • Starting (April 16, 2024), customers of the bank are now limited to a maximum withdrawal of Rs 15,000 from their accounts.
  • Customers will feel the immediate effect of these restrictions through the imposed withdrawal limit.
  • Deposit insurance assurance : For depositors worried about their funds, the RBI has confirmed that they are eligible to claim an insurance amount on deposits up to a limit of Rs 5 lakh.

Detailed Explanation:

  • In a significant move, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has placed several constraints on the Mumbai-based Sarvodaya Co-operative Bank.
  • Starting (April 16, 2024), customers of the bank are now limited to a maximum withdrawal of Rs 15,000 from their accounts.
  • Customers will feel the immediate effect of these restrictions through the imposed withdrawal limit.
  • Deposit insurance assurance : For depositors worried about their funds, the RBI has confirmed that they are eligible to claim an insurance amount on deposits up to a limit of Rs 5 lakh.
  • This insurance is provided by the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC), offering some relief amid the restrictions.
  • Operational restrictions : Under the new directives, which fall under Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, the Sarvodaya Co-operative Bank faces strict limitations on its banking activities.
  • It is no longer permitted to issue or renew loans and advances, make new investments, or incur additional liabilities without prior approval from the RBI.
  • These Directions shall remain in force for a period of 6 months from the close of business on April 15, 2024 and are subject to review.


3) Answer: C

  • Punjab National Bank (PNB), one of the largest Public Sector Banks in India, celebrated its 130th Foundation Day in the city and across the country.
  • PNB unveiled a commemorative history book titled “Anarkali Bazaar, Lahore to Dwarka, Delhi – A 130 Years Saga of Excellence,” chronicling the bank’s evolution from 1894 to the present.
  • The bank also introduced new digital offerings like Digi Education Loan, Digi Car Loan, Interoperable Cardless Cash Withdrawal (ICCW) through UPI, Kisan Credit Card Digital Review and DP (Drawing Power) enhancement, BHIM QR Soundbox with UPI 123 Pay, PNB Pay Wearable Debit Card, and Financial Supply Chain Management (FSCM) – iCMS.

Detailed Explanation:

  • Punjab National Bank (PNB), one of the largest Public Sector Banks in India, celebrated its 130th Foundation Day in the city and across the country.
  • PNB unveiled a commemorative history book titled “Anarkali Bazaar, Lahore to Dwarka, Delhi – A 130 Years Saga of Excellence,” chronicling the bank’s evolution from 1894 to the present.
  • The bank also unveiled the January-March 2024 issue of PNB Pratibha, an in-house Rajbhasha Patrika.
  • The bank also introduced new digital offerings like Digi Education Loan, Digi Car Loan, Interoperable Cardless Cash Withdrawal (ICCW) through UPI, Kisan Credit Card Digital Review and DP (Drawing Power) enhancement, BHIM QR Soundbox with UPI 123 Pay, PNB Pay Wearable Debit Card, and Financial Supply Chain Management (FSCM) – iCMS.
  • As part of its ongoing commitment to environmental sustainability, PNB also unveiled PALAASH 2.0, a significant step towards environmental conservation.
  • PNB, in collaboration with PNB PRERNA, an association comprising of senior women officials of the bank and the wives of senior bank officials whose primary goal is to support and promote the bank’s CSR efforts, also announced its partnership with NGO AROH Foundation to establish a Mini Science Centre (MSC) at Sarvodaya Vidyalaya Govt. School (Sector 13, Dwarka) in Delhi as part of the STEM (science, technology, engineering and mathematics)programme.
  • The bank also extended its support to select government schools in Delhi by providing essential infrastructure items.


4) Answer: B

  • India remains the top choice for enterprises looking to expand their digital services portfolio and companies are expected to increase spending on AI, data analytics and cybersecurity, according to industry body Nasscom.
  • The report ‘Digital Enterprise Maturity 5.0: Digital Readiness in the Era of AI’ is based on a survey of 550 enterprises across 11 major sectors and seven major geographical regions.
  • The survey found that 71 per cent of enterprises in India spent over 20 per cent of their tech spends on digital in 2023.

Detailed Explanation:

  • India remains the top choice for enterprises looking to expand their digital services portfolio and companies are expected to increase spending on AI, data analytics and cybersecurity, according to industry body Nasscom.
  • The report ‘Digital Enterprise Maturity 5.0: Digital Readiness in the Era of AI’ is based on a survey of 550 enterprises across 11 major sectors and seven major geographical regions.
  • The survey found that 71 per cent of enterprises in India spent over 20 per cent of their tech spends on digital in 2023.
  • Nearly 90 per cent of companies have signalled plans to boost investments in key digital technology areas in 2024, including artificial intelligence (AI)/machine learning (AI/ML), big data analytics, cloud computing, cybersecurity, and intelligent automation
  • The report noted that sectors like BFSI (banking, financial services, and insurance), high-tech, discrete manufacturing, telecom, media and entertainment, as well as energy, utilities, and alternatives are expanding their digital services contracts.


5) Answer: C

  • Ramkrishna Forgings Ltd has received an order of Rs 270 crore from a consortium led by BHEL to supply bogie frames of Vande Bharat train sets.
  • Kolkata(WB)-based Ramkrishna Forgings is a manufacturer and supplier of closed-die forgings of carbon and alloy steel, micro-alloy steel, and stainless steel forgings.
  • The company also has a presence in the US, Mexico, Turkey, and Belgium.

Detailed Explanation:

  • Ramkrishna Forgings Ltd has received an order of Rs 270 crore from a consortium led by BHEL to supply bogie frames of Vande Bharat train sets.
  • The scope of the project involves the development and validation of the bogie frames for the sleeper version of the Vande Bharat train sets, Ramkrishna Forgings Ltd (RKFL).
  • This order encompasses 32 train sets, each comprising 16 coaches and RKFL will be producing a total of 1,024 bogie frames.
  • The order valued at Rs 270 crore is to be supplied to the BHEL TRSL consortium.
  • Kolkata(WB)-based Ramkrishna Forgings is a manufacturer and supplier of closed-die forgings of carbon and alloy steel, micro-alloy steel, and stainless steel forgings.
  • The company also has a presence in the US, Mexico, Turkey, and Belgium.


6) Answer: C

  • India has signed a protocol amending its tax treaty with Mauritius to fill the loopholes in the treaty which were being abused for tax evasion and avoidance.
  • India has signed DTAA with 85 nations in total to safeguard non-resident Indians from double taxation.
  • This agreement ensures that countries involved have agreed upon tax rates on income arising from their country.
  • The governments of India and Mauritius came to a unanimous decision in 1983 regarding the avoidance of double taxation.

Detailed Explanation:

  • India has signed a protocol amending its tax treaty with Mauritius to fill the loopholes in the treaty which were being abused for tax evasion and avoidance.
  • However, the text of the amended treaty has raised concerns of greater scrutiny on investments.
  • This has led to a sell-off in stock markets by Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs).
  • The Double Tax Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) is a treaty signed between two countries so that non-residents can avoid paying double taxes.
  • For example, if an Indian works in a company situated in Mauritius, they might have to double taxes twice in both countries, which is something that the DTAA wants to prevent.
  • India has signed DTAA with 85 nations in total to safeguard non-resident Indians from double taxation.
  • This agreement ensures that countries involved have agreed upon tax rates on income arising from their country.
  • The governments of India and Mauritius came to a unanimous decision in 1983 regarding the avoidance of double taxation.
  • Objective: To promote bilateral economic relations and investment between India and Mauritius by providing tax certainty and reducing tax barriers.
  • India and Mauritius in March 2024 had signed an amendment to the DTAA.
  • The amendment included a principal purpose test (PPT) in the pact.
  • The PPT aims to curtail tax avoidance by ensuring that treaty benefits are only granted for transactions with a bona fide purpose.


7) Answer: A

  • India’s exports are estimated to reach 776.68 billion dollars in financial year 2023-24, surpassing last year’s highest record. The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, in a release that that the overall exports in the preceding financial year, 2022-23, were 40 Billion dollars.
  • The overall trade deficit is estimated to significantly improve by 35.77 per cent, from 121.62 Billion dollars in the financial year 2022-23 to 78.12 Billion dollars in the financial year 2023-24.

Detailed Explanation:

  • India’s exports are estimated to reach 776.68 billion dollars in financial year 2023-24, surpassing last year’s highest record.
  • The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, in a release that that the overall exports in the preceding financial year, 2022-23, were 40 Billion dollars.
  • The Ministry added that overall imports in the financial year 2023-24 are estimated to be 854.80 Billion dollars, exhibiting a negative growth of minus 4.81 per cent compared to the preceding financial year.
  • The overall trade deficit is estimated to significantly improve by 35.77 per cent, from 121.62 Billion dollars in the financial year 2022-23 to 78.12 Billion dollars in the financial year 2023-24.


8) Answer: D

  • Arjun Mohan, the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of Byju’s India, resigned from his position a little over 6 months after he took over, with founder Byju Raveendran resuming daily operational responsibilities.
  • Mohan will now transition to an external advisory role, lending his deep EdTech expertise to the company and its founders during this transformation phase.
  • Arjun Mohan assumed the role of CEO in September 2023, previously serving as the CEO of UpGrad.

Detailed Explanation:

  • Arjun Mohan, the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of Byju’s India, resigned from his position a little over 6 months after he took over, with founder Byju Raveendran resuming daily operational responsibilities.
  • Mohan will now transition to an external advisory role, lending his deep EdTech expertise to the company and its founders during this transformation phase.
  • Byju’s 3.0 Initiative: The reorganization signifies the beginning of Byju’s 3.0, aiming for a leaner and more agile organization capable of quickly adapting to changing market dynamics, especially in hyper-personalized education.
  • Arjun Mohan assumed the role of CEO in September 2023, previously serving as the CEO of UpGrad.
  • The company has also announced a major rejig of its business, consolidating it into three focused divisions -The Learning App, Online classes and Tuition centres, and Test-prep.


9) Answer: B

  • Man Portable Anti-tank Guided Missile (MPATGM) Weapon System, indigenously designed and developed by the Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO), has been field evaluated in different flight configurations several times to prove the technology with high superiority.
  • The Warhead Flight Trials were successfully conducted at the Pokhran Field Firing Range (PFFR), Rajasthan.
  • The missile has a length of about 130 cm and a diameter of about 12 cm with a collapsible tripod, and launch tube of aluminium and carbon fibre to reduce weight.
  • It weights 5 kg, with its command launch unit (CLU) weighing 14.25 kg which combines a laser designator with digital all-weather sight.
  • Minimum range is 200 to 300 m; maximum range is 4 km.

Detailed Explanation:

  • Man Portable Anti-tank Guided Missile (MPATGM) Weapon System, indigenously designed and developed by the Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO), has been field evaluated in different flight configurations several times to prove the technology with high superiority.
  • The Warhead Flight Trials were successfully conducted at the Pokhran Field Firing Range (PFFR), Rajasthan.
  • With this, technology development and successful demonstration have been concluded and the system is now ready for Final User Evaluation Trials leading towards its induction into the Indian Army.
  • Adequate number of missile firing trials have been successfully conducted towards achieving compliance of complete operational envelop as stipulated in the General Staff Qualitative Requirements (Infantry, Indian Army).
  • Penetration trials of the Tandem Warhead System of MPATGM have been successfully completed and it is found capable of defeating modern armour protected Main Battle Tank.
  • The system consisted of the MPATGM, Launcher, Target Acquisition System, and the Fire Control Unit.
  • As of 2022, it is being developed by the DRDO in partnership with Indian defence contractor VEM Technologies Private Limited.
  • The MPATGM is a low-weight, long cylindrical missile with two groups of four radial fins, larger ones at the middle, and smaller ones at the tail.
  • It is fitted with one high-explosive anti-tank (HEAT) shaped charge warhead.
  • The missile has a length of about 130 cm and a diameter of about 12 cm with a collapsible tripod, and launch tube of aluminium and carbon fibre to reduce weight.
  • It weighs5 kg, with its command launch unit (CLU) weighing 14.25 kg which combines a laser designator with digital all-weather sight.
  • Minimum range is 200 to 300 m; maximum range is 4 km.


10) Answer: D

  • Hindustan Shipyard Limited (HSL), the premier shipbuilding yard in the country set up in 1941, has initiated the construction of India’s first indigenously designed Fleet Support Ship (FSS) for the Indian Navy, marking a significant milestone.
  • The project for constructing 5 FSS has been awarded to HSL as part of the ‘Atma Nirbhar India’ mission, aimed at enhancing self-reliance in defence manufacturing.
  • The contract at an estimated cost of Rs 19,000 crore with the Ministry of Defence was signed in August, 2023.

Detailed Explanation:

  • Hindustan Shipyard Limited (HSL), the premier shipbuilding yard in the country set up in 1941, has initiated the construction of India’s first indigenously designed Fleet Support Ship (FSS) for the Indian Navy, marking a significant milestone.
  • The project for constructing 5 FSS has been awarded to HSL as part of the ‘Atma Nirbhar India’ mission, aimed at enhancing self-reliance in defence manufacturing.
  • The contract at an estimated cost of Rs 19,000 crore with the Ministry of Defence was signed in August, 2023.
  • Delivery Schedule : HSL is scheduled to deliver the ships from mid-2027 onwards, contributing to the modernization and expansion of the Indian Navy’s fleet.
  • Enhancing Naval Capabilities : The induction of FSS will enhance the ‘Blue Water’ capabilities of the Indian Navy by enabling replenishment of fleet ships at sea, thereby extending operational reach and endurance.
  • First-of-Its-Kind Vessels: These five 44,000-tonne vessels will be the first-of-their-kind to be built in India by an Indian Shipyard, showcasing indigenous expertise in shipbuilding.
  • Employment Generation: The FSS project is expected to generate employment opportunities, with nearly 88 million man-days of workover 8 years, contributing to economic growth and skill development.


11) Answer: B

  • Russia successfully test-launched its Angara-A5 space rocket for the first time from the Vostochny Cosmodrome in the Far East.
  • This marks a significant milestone in Russia’s efforts to develop a new post-Soviet launch vehicle.
  • Specifications: The Angara-A5 rocket is 5 metres (178.81 feet) tall, consists of three stages, and has a mass of about 773 tonnes.
  • It can carry approximately 5 tonnes into space.

Detailed Explanation:

  • Russia successfully test-launched its Angara-A5 space rocket for the first time from the Vostochny Cosmodrome in the Far East.
  • This marks a significant milestone in Russia’s efforts to develop a new post-Soviet launch vehicle.
  • Objective of the Test Launch: The test launch of the Angara-A5 aimed to demonstrate Russia’s ambition to establish itself as a major space power and underscored the growing importance of the Vostochny Cosmodrome in the Amur region of Russia’s Far East.
  • Technical Setbacks: The successful test launch follows a series of technical setbacks that led to the cancellation of two previous attempts, highlighting the challenges involved in developing new space technology.
  • Payload Capacity and Design: The Angara-A5 space rocket is designed to carry heavy payloads into low Earth orbit, with a capacity to carry payloads exceeding 20 tonnes.
  • It is part of the Angara family of rockets developed to replace the Soviet-designed Proton rockets.
  • Specifications: The Angara-A5 rocket is 5 metres (178.81 feet) tall, consists of three stages, and has a mass of about 773 tonnes.
  • It has the capability to carry approximately 5 tonnes into space.


12) Answer: A

  • Navratna Defence PSU Bharat Electronics Ltd (BEL) has signed an MoU with the Indian Institute of Technology, Mandi, Himachal Pradesh, for cooperation in Research and Technology/Product Development — in the areas of Semiconductors, Quantum Technologies and Drones.
  • The MoU aims at leveraging the complementary strengths and capabilities of BEL and IIT-Mandi.

Detailed Explanation:

  • Navratna Defence PSU Bharat Electronics Ltd (BEL) has signed an MoU with the Indian Institute of Technology, Mandi, Himachal Pradesh, for cooperation in Research and Technology/Product Development — in the areas of Semiconductors, Quantum Technologies and Drones.
  • The MoU aims at leveraging the complementary strengths and capabilities of BEL and IIT-Mandi.
  • It will support the indigenisation of products/solutions being supplied by BEL to its customers and is in line with the Government of India’s ‘Make in India’ initiative.
  • BEL is working in the fields of IoT, cloud computing, big data analytics, network management systems, artificial intelligence, smart cities, mission critical communication, large networks solution, telecom and switching products, unmanned systems, quantum technologies, etc.
  • The company is a preferred system manufacturer and integrator for numerous defence programmes in India.
  • Indian Institute of Technology Mandi is one among the eight, newer, second generation IITs. It is a research university located in Kamand Valley, Mandi city, Mandi district of Himachal Pradesh.
  • Established in 2009, IIT-Mandi has in the last 15 years developed good infrastructure to foster quality research in the fields of science and engineering.
  • The institute ranks amongst the best technological institutions in the world and has contributed to all sectors of technological development.


13) Answer: B

  • Engineers India has signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with Detect Technologies for real-time artificial intelligence (AI) based monitoring of construction sites.
  • Under the MoU, EIL and Detect Technologies will collaborate to provide real-time artificial intelligence (AI) based monitoring for implementing safe practices and progress monitoring at construction sites for various projects being executed by EIL.

Detailed Explanation:

  • Engineers India has signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with Detect Technologies for real-time artificial intelligence (AI) based monitoring of construction sites.
  • Under the MoU, EIL and Detect Technologies will collaborate to provide real-time artificial intelligence (AI) based monitoring for implementing safe practices and progress monitoring at construction sites for various projects being executed by EIL.
  • This MoU will facilitate the implementation, operation and maintenance of an AI-based solution using cameras, drones, and cloud computing for maintaining safe work environment at a site to avoid loss time accidents/injuries, and monitor project progress.
  • This collaboration aligns with EIL’s commitment to creating the safest possible environment for personnel at work sites by strictly adhering to the highest regulatory standards.
  • This commitment ensures zero tolerance for safety and occupational hazards across various projects, thereby contributing to the social, economic, and holistic growth of society and the country at large.
  • Engineers India (EIL) is an engineering consultancy and technology licensing company in the fields of hydrocarbons, petrochemicals, fertilizers, metallurgy, ports & terminals, and other sectors of industry, having a DSIR-recognized R&D centre.


14) Answer: C

  • Delhi airport has been named among the world’s top 10 busiest airports for 2023 in a list topped by Hartsfield-Jackson Atlanta International Airport.
  • The Indira Gandhi International Airport in the national capital is ranked tenth while Dubai and Dallas airports are at the second and third positions, respectively, according to the Airports Council International (ACI) World.
  • From the top 10 rankings for total passenger traffic, five airports are in the US.
  • In 2022, the airport was in the ninth position.

Detailed Explanation:

  • Delhi airport has been named among the world’s top 10 busiest airports for 2023 in a list topped by Hartsfield-Jackson Atlanta International Airport.
  • The Indira Gandhi International Airport in the national capital is ranked tenth while Dubai and Dallas airports are at the second and third positions, respectively, according to the Airports Council International (ACI) World.
  • From the top 10 rankings for total passenger traffic, five airports are in the US.
  • At the tenth place, Delhi airport handled more than 7.22 crore passengers in 2023.
  • In 2022, the airport was in the ninth position.
  • Hartsfield-Jackson Atlanta International Airport is on top and it handled over 10.46 crore passengers last year.
  • It is followed by Dubai International Airport, which saw more than 8.69 crore passengers, and Dallas Forth Worth International Airport.
  • The latter handled over 8.17 crore passengers in 2023.
  • Others in the list are London’s Heathrow Airport (4th spot), Tokyo’s Haneda Airport (5th), Denver International Airport (6th), Istanbul Airport (7th), Los Angeles International Airport (8th) and Chicago’s O’Hare International Airport (9th).
  • The passenger number for an airport includes emplaned and deplaned passengers, and those who transited have been counted once.


15) Answer: C

  • A dominant Mohun Bagan defeated Mumbai City FC 2-1 to win their maiden ISL League Shield.
  • Liston Colaco (28th), and Jason Cummings (80th) struck for Mohun Bagan, while Lallianzuala Chhangte struck for Mumbai City FC against the run of play in the 89th minute when he converted a freekick from Yoell Van Nieff.
  • This marked the conclusion of the League stage as the competition now moves to playoffs of six teams that begin on April 19.

Detailed Explanation:

  • A dominant Mohun Bagan defeated Mumbai City FC 2-1 to win their maiden ISL League Shield.
  • Liston Colaco (28th), and Jason Cummings (80th) struck for Mohun Bagan, while Lallianzuala Chhangte struck for Mumbai City FC against the run of play in the 89th minute when he converted a freekick from Yoell Van Nieff.
  • This was Mohun Bagan’s first victory over the two-time Shield Winners across four seasons as the Mumbai heavyweights were also unbeaten over them in previous eight matches, winning six of them.
  • The win also sealed their berth in the AFC Champions League 2 for the first time as 60,000 chanted ‘Mohun Bagan, Mohun Bagan’ reverberated across the Salt Lake Stadium stands.
  • This marked the conclusion of the League stage as the competition now moves to playoffs of six teams that begin from April 19.
  • The top-two teams, Mohun Bagan and Mumbai City, will directly play the semi-finals, while the sides from third to sixth — Goa, Odisha, Kerala Blasters and Chennaiyin — will play single leg playoff in a knockout format to determine the other two semifinalists.The ISL summit clash will be on May 4.


16) Answer: C

  • Mykolas Alekna broke the longest-standing world record in men’s athletics, producing a mammoth 74.35-meter discus throw to shatter the nearly 38-year-old previous best mark.

Detailed Explanation:

  • Mykolas Alekna broke the longest-standing world record in men’s athletics, producing a mammoth 74.35-meter discus throw to shatter the nearly 38-year-old previous best mark.
  • The 21-year-old Lithuanian, a silver medalist at the 2022 World Championships and bronze medalist at last year’s Budapest Worlds, broke the record at the Oklahoma Throws Series World Invitational in Ramona, Oklahoma.
  • The record betters Jurgen Schult’s mark of 74.08m set on June 6 1986 while representing East Germany.


17) Answer: B

  • In Chess, India’s D. Gukesh stayed on top of the leaderboards after playing out a draw against the joint leader Ian Nepomniachtchi in round ten of the FIDE Candidates 2024 at the Great Hall in Toronto, Canada.
  • Meanwhile, Vidit Gujrathi agreed to a draw against compatriot R Praggnanandhaa.

Detailed Explanation:

  • In Chess, India’s D. Gukesh stayed on top of the leaderboards after playing out a draw against the joint leader Ian Nepomniachtchi in round ten of the FIDE Candidates 2024 at the Great Hall in Toronto, Canada.
  • Meanwhile, Vidit Gujrathi agreed to a draw against compatriot R Praggnanandhaa.
  • With just four games left in the event, 18-year-old Praggnanandhaa is just half a point behind the tournament leaders.
  • The American duo of Hikaru Nakamura and Fabiano Caruana are also with Praggnanandhaa, which means five people are still in contention to win the open section.


18) Answer: B

  • Derek Underwood, England’s best spinner in the post-World War II era, who gave a torrid time to the legendary Sunil Gavaskar, passed away at the age of 78.
  • Underwood was born on June 8, 1945, in Bromley, Kent, England.
  • He was ranked as the 1 bowler in the world by the ICC Men’s Test Player rankings from September 1969 to August 1973.
  • He served as the President of Kent Cricket Club in 2006, the President of Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC) in 2008, and was inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame in 2009.
  • He was inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame in 2009, recognizing his significant contributions to the sport.

Detailed Explanation:

  • Derek Underwood, England’s best spinner in the post-World War II era, who gave a torrid time to the legendary Sunil Gavaskar, passed away at the age of 78.
  • Underwood was born on June 8, 1945, in Bromley, Kent, England.
  • He was a practitioner of slow left-arm orthodox spin and was highly regarded for his pin-point accuracy, particularly effective on uncovered pitches during the 1960s and 1970s.
  • He claimed 297 wickets from 86 Test matches, the highest by an England spinner.
  • In his 24-year First-Class career, he took an impressive 2,465 wickets.
  • He played exclusively for Kent in domestic cricket, making his debut for the team at the age of 17 in 1963.
  • He played 676 first-class games and 411 List-A games, claiming a total of 2,465 and 572 wickets
  • He was ranked as the 1 bowler in the world by the ICC Men’s Test Player rankings from September 1969 to August 1973.
  • He served as the President of Kent Cricket Club in 2006, the President of Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC) in 2008, and was inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame in 2009.
  • He was inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame in 2009, recognizing his significant contributions to the sport.


19) Answer: B

  • World Hemophilia Day is celebrated on April 17th every year.
  • This day is recognized worldwide to increase awareness of haemophilia and other inherited bleeding disorders.
  • The World Federation of Haemophilia established World Haemophilia Day in 1989.

Detailed Explanation:

  • World Hemophilia Day is celebrated on April 17th every year.
  • This day is recognized worldwide to increase awareness of hemophilia and other inherited bleeding disorders.
  • The World Federation of Haemophilia established World Haemophilia Day in 1989.
  • The date of April 17 was chosen to commemorate the birthday of the World Federation of Haemophilia’s founder, Frank Schnabel.
  • Haemophilia was first discovered around the 10th century, when people began to take a serious interest, particularly in male patients who died after suffering minor bleeding wounds.
  • Abulcasis was the name given to this illness back then.


20) Answer: C

About Punjab National Bank :

  • Founded : 19 May 1894
  • Headquarters : Dwarka, Delhi, India
  • MD & CEO : Atul Kumar Goel
  • Tagline : You Can Bank Upon

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